Did Paul Blunder? (Romans 3:10)

Did Paul Blunder? (Romans 3:10)

In Romans 3:10, Paul states: "as it is written, “There is none righteous, not even one," (Romans 3:10 NASB1995). Paul seems to be quoting Psalm 14 where it states: "The fool has said in his heart, “There is no God.” They are corrupt, they have committed abominable deeds; There is no one who does good," (Psalm 14:1 NASB1995). This is not a direct quote but rather a sort of paraphrase. 

As Barnes explains: "There is none righteous - The Hebrew Psa 14:1 is, there is none that doeth good. The Septuagint has the same. The apostle quotes according to the sense of the passage. The design of the apostle is to show that none could be justified by the Law. He uses an expression, therefore, which is exactly conformable to his argument, and which accords in meaning with the Hebrew, "there is none just," δίκαιος dikaios," (Barnes). We must realize that the Psalms are full of poetic language and this verse is of no exception. Paul nor the Psalmist is claiming none do good, As Paul has even said: "For I have no one else of kindred spirit who will genuinely be concerned for your welfare," (Philippians 2:20 NASB1995). Paul praises Timothy and notes he cares for the people of Philippi. 

So what do they actually mean? Paul is trying to make a point to the Jews. As he explains: " What then? Are we better than they? Not at all; for we have already charged that both Jews and Greeks are all under sin; as it is written," (Romans 9-10 NASB1995). Paul is trying to get the Jews to understand that both Jews and Gentiles are sinners, that they are not better, that they are one in Christ: "There is neither Jew nor Greek, there is neither slave nor free man, there is neither male nor female; for you are all one in Christ Jesus," (Galatians 3:28 NASB1995).

Paul contiues stating: "Where then is boasting? It is excluded. By what kind of law? Of works? No, but by a law of faith. For we maintain that a man is justified by faith apart from works of the Law. Or is God the God of Jews only? Is He not the God of Gentiles also? Yes, of Gentiles also, since indeed God who will justify the circumcised by faith and the uncircumcised through faith is one," (Romans 3:28-30 NASB1995).

The Jews in their arrogance had acted as if they were perfect, commiting no sin at all. Paul corrects them, noting: " for all have sinned and fall short of the glory of God," (Romans 3:23 NASB1995). All have sinned, even the Jews. 

Works Cited:
Barnes' Notes on the New Testament. United Kingdom, Kregel Publications, 1962.

NASB 1995 Bible. United States, American Bible Society, 1995.